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Respectfully, this is a
Respectfully, this is a nonsensical decision. Sale of estate estates is undeniably a core proceeding over which the Bankruptcy Court can and should exercise jurisdiction. The issue in the litigation was, in effect, a breach under the Sale Order, which presumably approved and authorized the debtor to enter into the PSA that was the basis of the lawsuit. So how does the Court that enters an order not have exclusive jurisdiction to enforce its own order?
It was almost as if the District Court was sua sponte withdrawing the reference of that part of the sale proceeding. But what do i know (that was intended as a rhetorical question...)?